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Perioperative care for MRCS Part A

Perioperative management is 35 of the 120 Paper 2 questions: preoperative assessment and management 7, intraoperative care 5, perioperative care 2, postoperative care 8, nutrition 2, haemostasis and blood products 3, coagulation, DVT and embolism 3, and metabolic and endocrine disorders 5. It follows the patient from the decision to operate to discharge — risk scoring and the optimisation of comorbidity, consent, marking and the WHO checklist, anaesthesia and the airway, positioning, diathermy, tourniquets and lasers, sutures, drains and technique, the recognition of postoperative complications and the critical care that supports a failing organ, fluids and analgesia, nutritional support, transfusion and the management of coagulopathy, thromboprophylaxis, and the perioperative care of the diabetic, the steroid-dependent and the patient with thyroid or adrenal disease. These questions are the day-to-day work of a core trainee, and the best answer is the step that current UK guidance would have you take next.

350 questions in the bank · 8 topics Updated 6 October 2026

Topics in this domain

  • Preoperative assessment & management70
  • Intraoperative care50
  • Perioperative care20
  • Postoperative care80
  • Nutritional management20
  • Haemostasis & blood products30
  • Coagulation, DVT & embolism30
  • Metabolic & endocrine disorders50

What the paper tends to test

  • Questions typically describe a postoperative patient with a fever, breathlessness, confusion or a falling urine output and ask for the most likely cause given the day after surgery, or the most appropriate first investigation.
  • Expect the ASA grade, cardiopulmonary exercise testing and the common risk scores — P-POSSUM, the NELA risk calculator, the revised cardiac risk index — as the language of preoperative assessment.
  • Intraoperative questions test diathermy — monopolar against bipolar, the return electrode, pacemakers and alcohol-based skin preparation — and tourniquet pressures and times.
  • Fluid and nutrition questions use the NICE CG174 maintenance figures, the indications for enteral and parenteral nutrition, and the refeeding syndrome.
  • Transfusion questions ask about the thresholds for red cells, platelets and plasma, the recognition of a transfusion reaction, and the management of major haemorrhage.
  • VTE questions test risk assessment, mechanical and pharmacological prophylaxis and its duration, and the management of a confirmed DVT or pulmonary embolism.
  • Metabolic and endocrine lines ask how to manage insulin and oral hypoglycaemics on the day of surgery, steroid cover, and the thyrotoxic or phaeochromocytoma patient before an operation.

Classic traps and discriminators

  • A fever in the first 24–48 hours after surgery is usually the inflammatory response to the operation or atelectasis; from day 3 think of the urinary tract and the surgical site, from day 5 an anastomotic leak, a collection or pneumonia, and from day 7 wound infection and venous thromboembolism — but a persistent tachycardia after bowel surgery is a leak until proved otherwise.
  • Refeeding syndrome follows the reintroduction of carbohydrate after prolonged starvation: insulin drives phosphate, potassium and magnesium into cells, so a falling phosphate is the marker. Patients at risk are fed slowly, given thiamine before feeding, and have their electrolytes replaced and monitored daily (NICE CG32).
  • Restrictive transfusion is the standard (NICE NG24): red cells at a haemoglobin of 70 g/L, or 80 g/L in acute coronary syndrome, one unit at a time outside major haemorrhage; platelets are not given for a low count alone unless it is below 10 × 10⁹/L or a procedure is planned.
  • The WHO Surgical Safety Checklist has three parts — sign in before induction, time out before the skin incision and sign out before the patient leaves theatre — and the operating site is marked by the operating surgeon or a delegate, with the patient awake and involved, before the anaesthetic room.
  • Patients on long-term steroids (about 5 mg of prednisolone a day or more) risk an adrenal crisis under the stress of surgery and need hydrocortisone at induction and for the first 24–48 hours, scaled to the size of the operation; hypotension that does not respond to fluids after surgery is adrenal insufficiency until proved otherwise.
  • Monopolar diathermy needs a return electrode over a well-perfused muscle mass away from bony prominences and metal implants; bipolar current passes only between the tips of the forceps and is used near nerves, on digits and in patients with pacemakers. Alcohol-based skin preparation must be dry and pooling avoided before diathermy is used.

Free perioperative care practice questions

From the free sample — original, referenced, with the full explanation. Rate your confidence first.

medium

A 71-year-old man is assessed for an urgent laparoscopic cholecystectomy for recurrent acute cholecystitis. Six weeks ago he had a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction treated with a drug-eluting coronary stent. He has no angina now and his ejection fraction is preserved.

Which ASA physical status grade is most appropriate?

How sure are you?
medium

A 40-year-old woman regurgitates clear acidic fluid at induction for an elective inguinal hernia repair; it is suctioned and she is intubated. Four hours after uneventful surgery she is apyrexial, with a respiratory rate of 20/min, oxygen saturation 95% on 2 L/min and patchy right lower zone shadowing.

Which is the most appropriate management?

How sure are you?

Free revision notes

Perioperative care questions, answered

How many perioperative questions are in Paper 2?

The ICBSE blueprint lists 35 of the 120 Paper 2 questions under perioperative management, with postoperative care (8) and preoperative assessment (7) the largest lines, followed by metabolic and endocrine disorders (5) and intraoperative care (5).

Which surgical patients need VTE prophylaxis?

Every surgical inpatient is risk-assessed on admission under NICE NG89. Those at increased risk — most patients having surgery under general anaesthesia lasting more than 90 minutes, or 60 minutes for the pelvis or lower limb, and those with cancer, obesity, immobility or a previous VTE — get mechanical prophylaxis from admission and low-molecular-weight heparin once bleeding risk allows, extended to 28 days after major abdominal or pelvic cancer surgery and hip fracture.

How is a patient with diabetes managed on the day of surgery?

Put them first on the list, keep the fasting period short, reduce the long-acting insulin dose the evening before, hold SGLT2 inhibitors from the day before and metformin only if the fast is prolonged or contrast is planned, and use a variable-rate intravenous insulin infusion only when more than one meal will be missed. The target capillary glucose is 6–10 mmol/L, with 4–12 acceptable.

What is the difference between an ASA grade and a POSSUM score?

ASA is a six-class description of the patient’s physical status before anaesthesia (I healthy to VI brain-dead organ donor, with E for emergency). POSSUM and P-POSSUM combine twelve physiological and six operative variables to predict morbidity and mortality for a specific operation, and are used in audit and in the NELA risk calculator for emergency laparotomy.

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