Skip to content

Revise by topic

Pathology for MRCS Part A

Applied surgical pathology is 37 of the 180 Paper 1 questions. General pathological principles contribute 9 — acute and chronic inflammation and wound healing, cell injury, necrosis and apoptosis, thrombosis, embolism and infarction, and growth, adaptation and amyloid — and the remaining 28 come as 2 each from immunology, haematology, clinical chemistry, neoplasia and oncology, and the pathology of the cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, genitourinary and nervous systems, skin cancer, the lymphoreticular and musculoskeletal systems, the breast and the endocrine glands. The questions are the mechanisms behind the conditions a surgeon sees: why a wound dehisces, how a tumour spreads and is staged, what a raised calcium or a transfusion reaction means, and which histological description fits which diagnosis. The system lines are short but broad, so breadth of recognition matters more than depth in any one of them.

370 questions in the bank · 15 topics Updated 6 October 2026

Topics in this domain

  • General pathological principles90
  • Surgical immunology20
  • Surgical haematology20
  • Surgical clinical chemistry20
  • Principles of neoplasia & oncology20
  • Cardiovascular pathology20
  • Respiratory pathology20
  • Digestive system pathology20
  • Genitourinary pathology20
  • Central & peripheral nervous system pathology20
  • Skin cancer20
  • Lymphoreticular pathology20
  • Musculoskeletal pathology20
  • Pathology of the breast20
  • Pathology of the endocrine glands20

What the paper tends to test

  • Questions typically test the phases of wound healing and the factors that delay it — infection, ischaemia, diabetes, steroids, malnutrition, smoking and radiotherapy.
  • Expect the vocabulary of adaptation applied to a clinical example: hyperplasia, hypertrophy, metaplasia and dysplasia, and the point at which neoplasia begins, with Barrett’s oesophagus as the usual illustration.
  • Thrombosis and embolism questions use Virchow’s triad, the fate of a thrombus and the types of embolus — fat, air, tumour and amniotic as well as thrombotic.
  • Neoplasia is examined through tumour markers, grading against staging, the routes of spread of carcinoma and sarcoma, and the paraneoplastic syndromes.
  • Immunology lines ask about the hypersensitivity types, transplant rejection and the consequences of splenectomy.
  • Haematology and clinical chemistry questions test transfusion reactions, the causes of a raised calcium or a low sodium, and the interpretation of a clotting screen.
  • System pathology questions are usually a short histological or clinical description to match to a diagnosis — a thyroid nodule, a breast lump, a bone tumour, a skin lesion.

Classic traps and discriminators

  • Wound tensile strength is about 10% of normal at 1 week and about 20% at 3 weeks, and reaches roughly 80% of unwounded skin only after months, which is why an abdominal wound can dehisce after the sutures come out and why the skin is never as strong as before.
  • Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size and hyperplasia an increase in cell number; metaplasia is a reversible change of one mature cell type to another and dysplasia a disordered growth that may progress; only invasion through the basement membrane makes a carcinoma.
  • Coagulative necrosis is the pattern of infarction in most solid organs; the brain liquefies, tuberculosis caseates and the pancreas and breast undergo fat necrosis. Apoptosis is energy-dependent, affects single cells and does not provoke inflammation.
  • Fat embolism presents 24–72 hours after a long-bone or pelvic fracture with hypoxia, confusion and a petechial rash over the upper trunk, axillae and conjunctivae — a triad that separates it from pulmonary thromboembolism, which comes later and without the rash.
  • Hypersensitivity: type I is IgE-mediated (anaphylaxis), type II antibody against a cell surface (ABO-incompatible transfusion, Goodpasture’s), type III immune-complex (serum sickness, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis) and type IV cell-mediated and delayed (contact dermatitis, the tuberculin test, acute cellular rejection).
  • The commonest cause of hypercalcaemia in an outpatient is primary hyperparathyroidism; in a hospital inpatient it is malignancy — through parathyroid hormone-related peptide from squamous cancers, lytic bone metastases and myeloma.

Free pathology practice questions

From the free sample — original, referenced, with the full explanation. Rate your confidence first.

medium

A 25-year-old man is stung on the forearm by a wasp. Within ten minutes a red, warm, swollen weal develops around the sting and subsides over the next hour.

Which mechanism chiefly accounts for the swelling?

How sure are you?
medium

A 45-year-old woman develops profound hypotension, bronchospasm and widespread erythema two minutes after induction of anaesthesia with propofol and rocuronium. She is resuscitated successfully with adrenaline.

Which investigation is most useful in the next few hours to support the diagnosis?

How sure are you?

Free revision notes

Pathology questions, answered

How many pathology questions are in MRCS Part A?

The ICBSE blueprint lists 37 of the 180 Paper 1 questions under applied surgical pathology: 9 on general principles and 2 on each of fourteen further lines from immunology and haematology to the pathology of individual systems.

What is the difference between grading and staging?

Grade describes how differentiated the tumour looks under the microscope; stage describes how far it has spread, usually as TNM — tumour, nodes, metastases. For most solid cancers stage is the stronger predictor of prognosis and decides treatment, while grade refines it.

What are the phases of wound healing?

Haemostasis, then inflammation over the first days (neutrophils then macrophages), then proliferation from about day 3 to 3 weeks — granulation tissue, angiogenesis, fibroblasts laying down type III collagen, epithelialisation and contraction by myofibroblasts — and finally remodelling over months as type III collagen is replaced by type I and the scar matures.

Which tumour markers should I know?

CEA for colorectal cancer follow-up, CA19-9 for pancreatic cancer, CA125 for ovarian cancer, AFP for hepatocellular carcinoma and non-seminomatous germ cell tumours, beta-hCG for choriocarcinoma and germ cell tumours, PSA for prostate cancer, calcitonin for medullary thyroid cancer and thyroglobulin after thyroidectomy for differentiated thyroid cancer. Most are for monitoring rather than diagnosis.

Drill pathology tonight

Create a free account, filter the bank to this domain and rate your confidence as you go. Upgrade when you want the full bank and two-paper mocks.