Skip to content

Revise by topic

Pharmacology & micro for MRCS Part A

This domain gathers the four smaller lines of Paper 1, which together contribute 23 of its 180 questions: pharmacology 8, microbiology 7, imaging 5, and data interpretation and audit 3. Pharmacology covers the anaesthetic agents, local anaesthetics and analgesics a surgeon prescribes or watches being given, antimicrobials and prophylaxis, anticoagulants, antiplatelets and their reversal, and the perioperative drugs that must be stopped, continued or covered. Microbiology covers the surgically important organisms, surgical site infection and sepsis, sterilisation, disinfection and infection control, and blood-borne viruses and needlestick injury. Imaging covers the modalities, contrast agents and radiation doses, and the interpretation of plain films, CT, ultrasound and MRI. Data interpretation covers study design, the statistics behind a trial or a screening test, and audit and clinical governance. The questions are short and factual, and they reward a tidy set of numbers and classifications held in memory.

230 questions in the bank · 4 topics Updated 6 October 2026

Topics in this domain

  • Pharmacology in surgical practice80
  • Microbiology in surgical practice70
  • Imaging50
  • Data interpretation, statistics & audit30

What the paper tends to test

  • Questions typically test local anaesthetic maximum doses and the recognition and treatment of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity with lipid emulsion.
  • Expect anticoagulant questions on the mechanism and reversal of warfarin, heparins and the direct oral anticoagulants, and on stopping or bridging them before surgery.
  • Antibiotic questions ask which agent covers which organism, when prophylaxis is given, and which drugs most often precipitate Clostridioides difficile infection.
  • Perioperative drug questions ask what to do with steroids, insulin, antiplatelets, ACE inhibitors and the combined oral contraceptive before an operation.
  • Microbiology lines test the organisms behind specific infections — Staphylococcus aureus in surgical site infection, Pseudomonas in burns and ventilated patients, Clostridium perfringens in gas gangrene — and the sterilisation method for a given instrument.
  • Imaging questions compare modalities for a clinical problem, cover the risks of iodinated and gadolinium contrast, and use effective radiation dose as the discriminator.
  • Statistics questions need a short calculation — sensitivity, specificity, predictive values, number needed to treat — or the right test for a type of data; audit is tested against research and service evaluation.

Classic traps and discriminators

  • The maximum doses usually quoted are lidocaine 3 mg/kg plain and 7 mg/kg with adrenaline, and bupivacaine 2 mg/kg with or without adrenaline. A 1% solution contains 10 mg/ml, so 20 ml of 1% lidocaine is 200 mg — the arithmetic is where the marks are lost.
  • Warfarin is reversed with vitamin K and, for major bleeding, four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate; unfractionated heparin with protamine, which only partly reverses low-molecular-weight heparin; dabigatran with idarucizumab; and the factor Xa inhibitors with andexanet alfa where available, otherwise prothrombin complex concentrate.
  • Cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, clindamycin and broad-spectrum penicillins are the antibiotics most associated with Clostridioides difficile infection; NICE NG199 gives oral vancomycin first line and oral fidaxomicin for a recurrence within 12 weeks.
  • Autoclaving — steam under pressure, typically 134 °C for 3 minutes — sterilises; glutaraldehyde, ethylene oxide and low-temperature plasma are used for heat-sensitive equipment; prions survive standard autoclaving, so instruments used on a patient with suspected CJD are quarantined or destroyed.
  • Sensitivity and specificity are properties of the test and do not change with prevalence; positive and negative predictive values do, so a screening test for a rare disease produces many false positives even when it is highly specific.
  • The effective dose of a chest radiograph is about 0.02 mSv and of an abdominal and pelvic CT roughly 10 mSv — several hundred chest films and a few years of natural background radiation — which is the figure questions use to argue for ultrasound or MRI in the young and the pregnant.

Free pharmacology & micro practice questions

From the free sample — original, referenced, with the full explanation. Rate your confidence first.

medium

A 34-year-old man is brought in after a motorcycle collision with a pulse of 135/min and a blood pressure of 78/45 mmHg despite transfusion. He needs a rapid sequence induction for an emergency laparotomy.

Which induction agent is most appropriate to help maintain his blood pressure?

How sure are you?
medium

A 64-year-old man with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes develops rapidly spreading pain, crepitus and dusky discoloration of the scrotum and perineum two days after a perianal abscess was drained. He is tachycardic and hypotensive.

Which microbiological pattern is most likely to be found in the debrided tissue?

How sure are you?

Free revision notes

Pharmacology & micro questions, answered

How is local anaesthetic systemic toxicity treated?

Stop injecting, call for help and secure the airway and oxygenation; control seizures with a benzodiazepine; start 20% lipid emulsion — a 1.5 ml/kg bolus followed by an infusion, repeated by the Association of Anaesthetists protocol; and continue CPR for longer than usual if the heart arrests, avoiding lidocaine as an antiarrhythmic.

When is antibiotic prophylaxis given for surgery?

As a single intravenous dose at induction, before the skin incision, for clean surgery involving a prosthesis or implant and for clean-contaminated and contaminated surgery; it is not routine for clean non-prosthetic operations. A further dose is given if the operation is prolonged or blood loss is heavy. Dirty or infected wounds need treatment rather than prophylaxis.

What is the difference between audit, research and service evaluation?

Audit measures current practice against an agreed standard and closes the loop by changing practice and re-measuring; it does not need research ethics approval. Research generates new knowledge, may involve randomisation or new treatments, and does need ethical approval. Service evaluation describes what a service is achieving without a standard to compare against.

How many questions do pharmacology, microbiology, imaging and data contribute?

The ICBSE blueprint gives these four lines 23 of the 180 Paper 1 questions: pharmacology 8, microbiology 7, imaging 5, and data interpretation and audit 3.

Drill pharmacology & micro tonight

Create a free account, filter the bank to this domain and rate your confidence as you go. Upgrade when you want the full bank and two-paper mocks.